Tuesday, May 31, 2011

Thursday, May 19, 2011

A section of medical doctors launches campaign against starting Pharm D course in India

Dear All,

This information is for all and a call to step up our agitation for the welfare of our pharmacy department.The article conveys a view of a private medical practitioner in kerala who has been making a huge cry and asking to demolish the whole pharmacy structure.



The validity, necessity and promotion of the pharmacy course, Pharm D is being questioned by a section of the Kerala branch of QPMPA, the national level organisation of private medical practitioners.

The association plans to set out a national level agitation against the promotion of the course by arguing that the advancement of the course will reduce the medical importance of the doctors.

The move against the promotion of Pharm D was already kick-started in Kerala by one Dr Sushama Anil, doctor –cum-owner of a Kozhikode based hospital. The doctor is now engaged in the task of mobilizing doctors from other states to escalate the agitation into the level of a national struggle against Pharmacy Council of India.

Dr Sushama Anil, a member of QPMPA has written an article in the monthly journal of the association in which she says that if the Pharm D is recognized and established by the government, and appointed those graduates in the hospitals as intermediaries between doctors and patients, the doctors community will lose the entire control of the medicines. Making a remark on the Pharm D graduates as ‘pharma doctors’, she says the total control of the drugs will be vested up on these ‘compounders’. According to her, the pharmacists, whether B Pharm, M Pharm or Pharm D, are mere compounders.

The article says that with the introduction of Pharm D, the Pharmacy Council of India is trying to bring back the extinct ‘medical practice compounders into force.' This move of the PCI will pave the way for a tussle between doctors and ‘pharma doctors’ (pharmacists) for power, position and importance in the health sector, the doctor maintains through the article. Her argument is that the doctors should be the backbone of the healthcare system, nobody should be allowed to try to be at par with the doctors.

According to her, the pharmacists (‘pharma doctors’) are vested with the roles of conducting patient’s medication history review, medication order review, patient counselling, adverse drug reaction monitoring, therapeutic drug monitoring, ward rounds and providing drug information to the drug information centre, these are nothing to do with the pharmacists, but are the duties of the doctors. In such a situation, no medical representatives will approach the doctors and their knowledge about the new drugs cannot be updated. This will adversely affect in such a way that the doctors need only to diagnose or carry out the clinical procedures. “MBBS should be renamed as DBBS—Bachelor of Diagnosis and Bachelor of Surgery,” the doctor said.

Since there is the term ‘Doctor’ in the expansion of Pharm D, the person having the Pharm D qualification can use ‘Dr’ as prefix to his name. This is against the dignity of the doctors and the medical profession. Pharm D course is like the ‘old wine in new bottle’ as in olden days for want of doctors in rural areas, the compounders used to treat the patients, Dr Sushama wrote in the article.

While speaking to Pharmabiz at the QPMPA national seminar in Thiruvananthapuram, Dr Sushma Anil said a pharmacist or a compounder cannot become a doctor, then why should he put the term ‘Doctor’ as prefix to his name. The doctor prefers to call the Pharm D graduates as ‘compounders’ rather than calling them as pharmacists. To support her argument, she asks whether a conductor can do the job of a driver. She is of opinion that even the doctors are old in age, they update their knowledge, but the compounders are not. Further she said the doctors are service oriented, but the pharmacists are business oriented.

While arguing for the dignity of the doctors community, she said the Pharmacy Council of India has started the course on ego basis. “They (pharmacists) want to become above the doctors.”

Another allegation levelled against PCI, according to the article, is that the PCI’s intention is to phase out gradually the three year B Pharm course by giving opportunity for the ongoing Pharmacy graduates to attain Pharm D.

The article also exhorts the doctors’ community to organize and fight together against the launching of the 3.5 year Rural Medical Services (BRMS).

Monday, May 9, 2011

GPAT 2011 ANSWER KEY

Q.l A glycoalkaloid,
[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule
[Q] is glycosidic in nature.
[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.
[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P & R (B) Q & S (C) Q & R
Ans.B
Q.2 Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?
[PI It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil.
[Q] It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium.
[R] It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age.
[S] It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol.
(A) P & Q (B) R & S (C) Q & R (D)
Ans.D
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
(A) Valerian (B) Brahmi (C) Satavari (D) Adusa
Ans. A
Q.4 Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
(A) Quinine t (B) Morphine (C) Atropine (D) Ephedrine
Ans.B
Q.5 The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family. Find a WRONG combination.
(A) Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
(B) Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
(C) Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
(D) Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Ans. D
Q.6 Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the
microscopic features of which plant?
(A) Digitalis (B) Hyoscyamus (C) Mentha (D) Senna
ANS. A
Q.7 Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source.
Choose an option showing a WRONG combination.
(A) Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
(B) Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
(C) Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
(D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya
ANS.C
Q.8 Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine (B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C) Shikimic acid - cathinone (D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
ANS.B
Q.9 Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?
(A) Ergosine (B) Ergotamine (C) Ergocristme (D) Ergometrine
ANS.D

Q.10 Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A) Prunus serona (B) Tribulus terrestis
(C) Ammi visnaga (D) Vanilla plamfolia
ANS.C


Q.ll Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?
(A) Tannins (B) Steroids (C) Glycerides (D) Resins
ANS.A
Q.12 Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud
dormancy?
(A) Zeatin (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C) Indoleacetic acid (D) Picloram
ANS.A
Q.13 Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
(A) Colchicine (B) Papaverine (C) Emetine (D) Cephaline
ANS.A
Q.14 A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is
obtained from which of the followings?
(A) Clove bud powder (B) Clove bud powder with stalk
(C) Mother Clove (D) None of the above
ANS.B
Q.15 Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid |R] Lmolenic acid |S] Linoleic acid
(A) P > Q > R > S (B) S > R > P > Q (C) R > S > Q > P (D) Q > P > R > S
ANS.C
Q.16 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a): Tannins are polyphenolic substances occurring in plant cell sap.
Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test.
Reason (r) : The condensed tannins are resistant to acid hydrolysis therefore stain the lignin present in
match stick.
( A ) Both (a) and (r) are true, and (r) is a correct reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS. B
Q.17 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a): Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.
Reason (r) : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at C-12 position which is responsible
for its solubility in alcohol and its purgative action.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(B) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS.C
Q.18 In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to formation of monoterpenes, the major
constituents of volatile oils.
[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units
[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms
[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes
[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 Hs.
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true. Q is false, R is true, S is false
(B) P is false. Q is true, R is true, S is false
(C) P is true. Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is true. Q is false, R is true, S is true
ANS.D
PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR
Q.19 Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.
[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A9-£rarcs-tetrahydrocannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
(B) P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false. S is true
(D) P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false
ANS.D
Q.20 Each of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and
corresponding semisynthetic analogue. Find a MISMATCHING option.
(A) Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
(B) Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
(C) Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
(D) THC, terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone
ANS.B
Q.21 Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450 enzyme system is most likely to be involved in
important drug-drug interactions?
(A) CYP3A4 (B) CYP2D6 (C) CYP2C9 (D) CYP1A2
Ans .A
Q.22 Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation inhibitory action?
(A) ADP receptor antagonism
(B) Glycoprotein Ilb/IIIa receptor antagonism
(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(D) Prostacyclin inhibition
ANS. D
Q.23 Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy [Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis
(A) Q & S are autoimmune disorders
(B) P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C) P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D) R & S are not autoimmune disorders
ANS. A
Q.24 Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl peptidase-4?
(A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin (C) Incretm (D) Glucagon
ANS. C
Q.25 Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not to take sildenafil. This drugdrug
interaction causes which of the following actions?
(A) Respiratory failure vJcB) Severe hypotension
(C) Prolongation of QT interval (D) Myocardial ischemia
ANS. B
Q.26 Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis'?
(A)" Atropine (B) Ephedrine (C) Phentolamine '(D) Cocaine
ANS C
Q.27 Wliich of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensm-II?
(A) Causes myocyte hypertrophy
(B) Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system
(C) Increases force of myocardial contraction
(D) Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone
ANS. A
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
Q.28 Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of
symptomatic heart failure?
(A) Atenolol (B) Carvedilol (C) Propranolol (d) Esmolol
ANS. B
Q.29 All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement about them.
[P] Bradykimn [Q] Minoxidil [R] Acetylcholine [S] Hydralazine
(A) P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
(B) Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
(C) R & S cause release of nitric oxide
(D) P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide
ANS. A
Q.30 Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?
(A) ACE inhibitors (B) Statins
(C) Calcium channel blockers (D) Sodium channel blockers
ANS. B
Q.31 Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased states?
(A) Hypercholesterolemia (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Myocardial infarction (D) Congestive heart failure
ANS. B
Q.32 Most of the emergency contraceptives have which one of the following active ingredients?
(A) Estradiol (B) Norethindron
(C) Misoprostol (D) Levonorgesterel
Ans .D
Q.33 Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses
post-antibiotic effect?
(A) Ceftazidime (B) Azithromycin l-(C) Amikacin (D) Piperacillin
ANS. C
Q.34 Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following actions9
(A) Integrase inhibition (B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
(C) Fusion inhibition (D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition
ANS. A
Q. 35 What is chemotaxis?
(A) Toxicity of chemicals
(B) Taxonomy of chemicals
(C) Inhibition of Inflammation
(D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
ANS. D
Q.36 Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor (B) Alpha adrenoceptor
(C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor (D) Beta adrenoceptor
ANS. C
Q.37 Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?
(A) Anakinra (B) Leflunomide (C) Etanercept V"(6) Infliximab
ANS. B
Q.38 Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
(B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
(C) It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
ANS. B
Q.39 Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase m HIV?
PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR
(A) Lamivudine (B) Nevirapine (C) Abacavir (D) Tenofovir
ANS. B
Q.40 Which of the followings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL cholesterol?
(A) Statins (B) Niacin
(C) Ezetimibe (D) to-3-Fatty acids
ANS. B
Q.41 Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate
of drug absorption?
(A) Cmax (B) Tmax (C) AUC (D) tl/2
Ans. B
Q.42 Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for 5α-reductase?
(A) Letrozole and androstenedione (B) Finasteride and testolactone
(C) Finasteride and 5-DHT (D) Finasteride and testosterone
ANS. C
Q.43 Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle
fibers?
(A) Pancuronium (B) Baclofen
(C) Dantrolene (D) Chlorzoxazone
ANS. C
Q.44 Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
(A) Tyrosine kinase (B) DNA
(C) Ribosomes (D) Tubulin
ANS. D
Q.45 Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given below.
(A) Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
(B) Schizophrenia and Mania
(C) Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
(D) Parkinson's disease and Autism
ANS .A
Q.46 A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the
followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?
(A) Metformin (B ) Pioghtazone (C) Glipizide (D) Exenatide
ANS. B
Q.47 Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of pregnancy. The action is caused
due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(B) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(C) Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(D) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor antagonist
ANS. B
Q. 48. Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Penicillanic acid (B) Embonic acid
(C) Cephalosporanic acid (C) Clavulanic acid
Ans .D
Q.49 All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that.
(A) Hypertension (B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Left ventricular dysfunction (D) Pheochromocytoma
ANS. D
Q.50 Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
(A) Ethosuximide (B) Vigabatnn (C) Valproic acid (D) Primidone
ANS. C
Q.51 Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?
(A) Potable water (B) Purified water
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
(C ) Disinfectant water (D) Soap water
ANS. A
Q.52 Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry for drying of soft shell
capsules?
(A) Truck drying . (B) Fluid bed drying
(C) Vacuum drying (D) Microwave drying
ANS. C
Q.53 Which one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?
(A) Zeolites .(B) Dextrins (C) Silica gels (D) Cyclodextrins
ANS. C
Q.54. If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation concentration. In which case the sink
conditions are said to be maintained?
(A) C < 20% of Cs (B) C > 20% of Cs (C) C < 10% of Cs (D) C > 10% of Cs
ANS. C
Q.55 Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose bioavailability study of an
immediate release product?
(A) Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 el
(B) Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
(C) There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
(D) Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC
ANS. C
Q.56 Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this
phenomenon known as?
(A) Oozing (B) Syneresis (C) Shrinking (D) Desolvation
Ans.B
Q.57 Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
(A) Subcuteneous ( B ) ! Intravenous (C) Intraspinal (D) Intradural
Ans.B
Q.58 Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer:
[P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.
[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.
(A) P is correct and Q is incorrect (B) P is incorrect and Q is correct
(C) Both P and Q are correct (D) Both P and Q are incorrect
ANS. C
Q.59 Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
(A) Bacillus stearothermophilus (B) Pseudomonas diminuta
(C) Bacillus subtilis 'D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS. B
Q.60 Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to
[P] Enzyme induction
[Q] Active secretion
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true, Q is false
(C) Q is true. P is false (D) Both P and Q are false
Ans. A
Q.61 Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
(A) 253.7 nm (B) 275.5 nm (C) 283.5 nm (D) 240.0 nm
ANS.A
Q.62 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
(A) Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
(C) Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
(D) The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Ans.C
Q.63 Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
(A) Resonance forces
(B) Resonance and London dispersion forces
(C) Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
(D) Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
ANS.D
Q.64 Which of the following isotherms are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more
than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV (B) Type II and V
(C) Type I and III (D) Type III and V
ANS.D
Q.65 Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
(A) Triethanolamine oleate
(B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
(C) N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
(D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
ANS.B
Q.66 The minimal effective flow rate of air in laminar flow hood should be not less than how many cubic feet per
minute?
(A) 10 .(B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 1000
ANS.C
Q.67 Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
(A) Schedule F (B) Schedule M (C) Schedule G (D) Schedule P
ANS.D
Q.68 Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
(A) Turbine pump (B) Volute pump
(C) Air binding pump (D) Peristaltic pump
ANS.D
Q.69 By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?
(A) Polyethylene glycol (B) Sorbitol
(C) Propylene glycol (D) Dibutyl phthalate
ANS.B
Q.70 Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
(A) 57.77° under proof (B) 57.77° over proof
(C) 47.41° over proof (D) 47.41° under proof
ANS.B
Q.71 Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
(A) Strip packing (B) Aerosols
(C) Injection packing (D) Glass containers
ANS.B
Q.72 What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100°C?
(A) 2790 cal/mole (B) 7290 cal / mole
(C) 7920 cal/mole (D) 9720 cal / mole
ANS.D
Q.73 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a]: For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.
Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal
pores of the particles.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Both la] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
ANS.A
Q.74 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements:
[PHARMACOPHORE SOLUTIONS-JAIPUR]
[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol forms gel more readily when sheared gently. IQ] In a rheopectic
system, sol is the equilibrium form.
[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.
(A) [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false (B) [P] is true but [Q] and [Rl are false
(C) [P], [Q] and [R], all are false (D) [P], [Q] and [R], all are true
ANS.B
Q.75 Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
(A) The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
(B) The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
(C) The process of separating white blood cells from blood
(D) The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
ANS.B
Q.76 Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
(B) Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
(C) Mobility in two directions and no rotation
(D) Mobility in three directions and no rotation
ANS.B
Q.77 Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A) Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
(B) Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
(C) Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
(D) Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
ANS.D
Q.78 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500
mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
(B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
(C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
(D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
ANS. A
Q.79 A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours. Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of
distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration of the drug?
(A) 5.05mcg/ml (B) 4.50 mcg/ml (C) 3.53 mcg/ml (D) 3.00 mcg/ml
ANS.D
Q.80 P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
(A) Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
(B) Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
(C) Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
(D) Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen
ANS.A
Q.81 Statement [X] :Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes as per their ionic size.
Statement[Y]: [P] The relative coagulating power is given by:
[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li - > FChoose
the correct statement :
(A) Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B) Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C) Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D) Statement X is false and P is false in Statement
ANS.D
Q.82 The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Capillary state (B) Pendular state
(C)Funicular state (D) Droplet state
ANS.A
Q.83 Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of tablets?
(A) Harder tablets (B) Softer tablets
(C) Fluffy tablets (D) Brittle tablets
ANS.D
Q.84 The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the
ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
[R] NH+ > Na +
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.5
ANS.A
Q.85 What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from
initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
(A) 2 hr (B) 4hr (C) 9 hr (D) 0.5 hr
ANS. D
Q.86 What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a
drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?
(A) 96 mg (B) 480 mg (C) 960 mg (D) 48 mg
ANS.D
Q. 86 Which website first provide answer key of GPAT-11?
A) gpatindia.com B pharmacophore solutions (C) both (D)
ANS. C
Q.87 What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [Urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH
= 7)]
(A) 1:101 B 1:201 (C) 2:101 (D) 1:202
ANS.B
Q.88 The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the
followings:'
(A) Inertial forces to gravitational forces (B) Inertial forces to viscous forces
(C) Viscous forces to inertial forces (D) Viscous forces to gravitational forces
ANS.B
Q.89 If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the
followings?
(A) Saturated liquid (B) Saturated vapor
(C) Superheated liquid (D) Superheated vapor
ANS.A
Q.90 What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A) To increase turbulence (B) To decrease turbulence
(C) To prevent corrosion (D) To increase shell side passes
ANS.A
Q. 91 S O S means which one of the followings?
(A) Take occasionally (B) Take immediately
(C) Take when necessary (D) Take as directed
ANS.C
Q.92 Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A) They are also called amphiphiles (B) They contain aggregated molecules
(C) They show partial solvation (D) They are also called micelles
ANS.C
Q.93 Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A) Plunger pump (B) Diaphragm pump
(C) Gear pump (D) Piston pump
ANS.C
Q.94 Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A) Klotz reciprocal plot (B) Sandberg modified equation
(C) Blanchard equation (D) Detli plot
ANS.D
Q.95 Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.
Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.
Choose the correct statement?
(A) Both of the above statements P & Q are true
(B) Both of the above statements P & Q are false
(C) Statement P is true and Q is false
(D) Statement P is false and Q is true
ANS.B
Q.96 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of
maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?
(A) 1 % (B) 2 % (C) 4 % (D) 5 %
ANS.A
Q.97 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a dose of 500 mg is absorbed upto 95% of the
administered dose.
The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification?
(A) Class I (B) Class II (C) Class III (D) Class IV
ANS.A
Q.98 Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A) It is also called differential distillation
(B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids
(C) It can be applied for volatile substances
(D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
ANS.D
Q.99 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of,
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1 : √2 (D) 1 : √3
ANS.C
Q.100 What is Primogel?
(A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression
(B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
(C) Hydrogelling porymer for gel formation
(D) Modified starch for disintegration
ANS.D
Q.101 A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation
constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
(A) Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
(B) Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
(C) Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
(D) Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
ANS.D
Q.102 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning
of wounds which could be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.
[P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action
[R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action
Choose the correct statements for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?
( A ) P & R (B) P & Q (C) R & Q (D) R & S
ANS.C
Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following
additional properties:
[P] It has a fixed chemical composition
[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide
[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation
[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions
Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) Q & S (B) R & S (C) P & Q (D) Q & R
ANS.C (MINOR TEST)
Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide
using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the
following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
(A) Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
(B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
(C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol
(D) Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
ANS.D
An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e. it should be biologically
available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements
most closely?
(A) Ferric chloride (B) Ferric ammonium sulphate
(C) Ferric ammonium citrate (D) Ferrous thioglycollate
ANS.B
Q.106 Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for diagnostic and therapeutic
purposes. Its usage is
dependent on the release of the following emissions:
[P] Alpha particles [Q] Positrons [R] Beta emission [S] Gamma radiation
Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) R & S (B) Q & S (C) P & R (D) P & S
ANS.C
Q.107 Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of acidity (highest to lowest)?
Q.103
Q.104
Q.105
[P] C2H5OH [Q] H3C-C≡CH [R] H20 [S] CH3NH2
(A) R > P > Q > S (B) P > R > Q > S (C) P > Q > R > S (D) R > Q > P > S
ANS.A
Q.108 Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an electron withdrawing group is attached to one of
the carbons bearing
the double bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
(A) It remains electrophilic (B) It becomes free radical addition
(C) It becomes pericyclic reaction (D) It becomes nucleophilic
ANS- A
Q.109 Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement in the rate of such
reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
(A) Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
(B) Solvation of both of the ionic species
(C) Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
(D) Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected
ANS. D
Q.110 Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution
reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to which one of the following reasons?
(A) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating electron density in the ring than
the six-membered ones
(B) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron density in the ring than
the six-membered ones
(C) Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which affects their reaction
rates
(D) Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones arc puckered
ANS. A
Q.lll Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?
(A) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized
(B) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized
(C) Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any
(D) Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two
ANS . B
Q.112 Diels-Alder reaction can be carried out in which of the following heterocyclic compounds most readily?
(A) Pyrrole (B) Thiophene (C) Furan (D) Pyridine
ANS.C
Q.113 In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of
their leaving capacity?
[P] Brosyl [Q] Hydroxyl [R] Chloro [S] Mesyl
(A) S > R > P > Q (B) P > S > R > Q
(C) R > Q > S > P (D) R > S > Q > P
ANS.B
Q.114 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic
aliphatic substitutionreactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.
Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble
compounds.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true (r) is false
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
ANS. B
Q.115 Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid
solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate (D) Sodium methoxide
ANS.A
Q.116 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile and inert complexes, are used
frequently. Choose the correct statement about them?
(A) Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or days in their formation
(B) Labile complexes take much longer time in formation than inert complexes
(C) Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes are stable in water
(D) Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while inert complexes do not
decompose
ANS.C
Q.117 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the correct statement about
them?
(A) Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
(B) Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
(C) Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion complex
(D) Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion in complexometric titrations
ANS.B
Q.118 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is carried out: treatment of the
aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite solution in acidic medium followed by addition of
sulphamic acid and then treatment with N-(l-naphthyl)ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to obtain
a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the quantity of the drug with the optical
density. Identify the drug under estimation?
(A) Streptomycin sulphate (B) Thiamine hydrochloride
(C) Dexamethasone (D) Sulphamethoxazole
ANS.D
Q.119 Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in aquametry?
(A) Sodium tartrate dihydrate (B) Copper sulphate pentahydrate
(C) Sodium iodide (D) Sodium thiosulphate
ANS.A
Q.120 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and zinc are + 0.337 V and -
0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of these metals are connected externally to each other through
an external circuit and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
(A) Zinc metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while copper ions will start depositing on the
copper electrode.
(B) Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions will start depositing on the zinc
electrode
(C) Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
(D) Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
AN S.A
Q.121 In polarography. DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large
hydrogen overpotential. It means which one of the followings?
(A) Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DME
(B) Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME
(C) Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME
(D) Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME
ANS.A
Q.122 Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings.
Identify that.
(A) It should be inert to the analytes
(B) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
(C) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
(D) It should have a high resolving power
ANS.B
Q.123 In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?
(A) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
(B) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
(C) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
(D) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
ANS.D
Q.124 To synthesize sulphonyl urea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?
(A) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic
conditions
(B) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative
(C) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative
(D) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative
ANS.B
Q.125 In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
[R] -CH = CH2 [S] ─C≡C
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A) Q > P > S > R (B) P > Q > R > S
( C ) Q > P > R > S ( D ) P > Q > S > R
[Type the document title]
ANS.A
Q.126 The following statements are given:
[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single bond while configurational
isomers cannot be interconverted without breaking a bond.
[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive while conformational isomers are
optically inactive
[R] Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures
[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of configurational isomers.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & S are true while R is false (B) P, R & S are true while Q is false
(C) Q, R & S are true while P is false (D) P, Q & R are true while S is false
ANS.B
Q.127 A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
(A) Accept an electron to give a carbene
(B) Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
(C) Combine with a negative ion
(D) Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
ANS.A
Q.128 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r):
Assertion (a) : Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction while acetaldehyde
and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol condensation.
Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol condensation while ketones
undergo only Cannizaro reaction.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are false (B) (a) is true but (r) is false
(C) (a) is false but (r) is true (D) Both (a) and (r) are true
ANS.B
Q.129 Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
(A) These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
(B) These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
(C) These reactions show a large element effect
(D) These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange
ANS.A
Q.130 Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide?
(A) Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl terminal is to be written on
the right hand side
(B) Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino terminal is to be written
on the right hand side
(C) Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be mentioned by specifying
the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in abbreviations
(D) It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is to be written
ANS.A
Q.131 BETA-Carboline ring system is present in
(A) Emetine (B) Riboflavine
(C) Deserpidine (D) d-Tubocurarine
ANS.C
Q.132 Which one of the followings is NOT a bioisosteric pair?
(A) Divalent ether (-0-) and amine (-NH) (B) Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)
(C) Carboxylate (C02-) and sulfone (S02) (D) Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)
ANS.A
Q.133 Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?
(A) L-Erythro (B) L-Threo (C) D-Erythro (D) D-Threo
ANS.D
Q.134 The catalytic triad in acetylcholinesterase is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A) Serine, Histidine and Glutamate (B) Serine, Arginine and Glutamate
(C) Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate (D) Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate
ANS.A
Q.135 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the
followings?
(A) Colour change (B) Appearance of a precipitate
(C) Neutralization reaction (D) Adsorption phenomenon
ANS.B
Q.136 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm
(B) Spin quantum number of proton is 1
(C) Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton
(D) Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant
ANS.C
Q.137 'In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the
interferometer is to act as a modulator'. What do you understand by this statement?
(A) The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator
(B) The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones
(C) The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones
(D) The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time
domain spectra
ANS.A
Q.138 Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A) Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(B) Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
(C) Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(D) Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
ANS.D
Q.139 Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error' and 'asymmetry potential' are
associated with which of the following electrodes9
(A) Hydrogen electrode (B) Quinhydrone electrode
(C) Saturated calomel electrode (D) Glass Electrode
ANS.A
Q.140 Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy wave length?
(A) -CH3 (B) -NHCH3 (C) -CI (D) -C=0
ANS. B
Q.141 What is the wavenumber equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A) 0.0025 cm-1 (B) 0.25 cm-1 (C) 2500 cm-1 (D) 25000 cm-1
ANS.D
Q.142 Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence of light and air to a toxic
compound. Identify that.
(A) CH2C12 (B) COCl2 (C) CO (D) CC14
ANS.B
Q.143 All of the given compounds show n —> a* transition. Identify which one will have the highest Amax?
(A) Methanol (B) Methylamine
(C) Methyl iodide (D) Methyl bromide
ANS.D
Q.144 Given are the four statements about NMR:
[P] 13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR
[Q] Both 13C and :H have I=1/2
[R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the applied magnetic field
[S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to heteroatoms.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are true while S is false (B) R, S & Q are true while P is false
(C) S, P & Q are true while R is false (D) All are true
ANS.D
Q.145 Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) The energy- required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair
< conjugated n < non conjugated n < a
(B) Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br
atoms in the compound in MS
[Type the document title]
(C) Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS
(D) The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak
ANS.D
Q.146 Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A) Fluorescence detector (B) Photo diode array detector
(C) Refractive index detector (D) UV detector
ANS. C
Q.147 The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types9
(A) Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons
(B) Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons
(C) Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons
(D) Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons
ANS.A
Q.148 A 250 ug/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What
is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm9
(A) 0.002 cm-1 gm-1 litre (B) 0.002 cm-1 gm-1 dl (C) 20 cm-
1 gm-1 litre
(D) 20 cm-1 gm-1 dl
Ans.D
Q.149 The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?
(A) Alpha fission
(C) Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement
(B) Mc-Laffartey rearrangement
(D) Tropylium ion formation
ANS. D
Q.150 Following statements are given for a chemical reaction:
Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value.
Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value
Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value
Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.
(A) The reaction is spontaneous.
(B) The reaction is non-spontaneous.
(C) The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.
(D) The reaction can never be spontaneous.
ANS.A